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Question # 11

During the insertion of a cochlear implant array, the audiologist runs intraoperative impedance telemetry to confirm device integrity prior to surgical wound closure.

[EXHIBIT: Intraoperative Telemetry Impedance Readout. In Monopolar 1 (MP1, ball ground) mode, all electrodes read normal impedances between 4.8 and 6.2 k$\Omega$. In Monopolar 2 (MP2, case ground) mode, all electrodes display an open-circuit error reading ( > 32 k$\Omega$, 'FLAG: CASE GROUND HIGH IMPEDANCE'). In Monopolar 1+2 (MP1+2) mode, all electrodes read normal values identical to the MP1 condition.]

[EXHIBIT / IMAGE GENERATION PROMPT: A 2D clinical telemetry software screen displaying a three-panel comparative bar chart. Panel 1 labeled 'MP1 Mode (Ball)': 16 green bars measuring 5.0 to 6.0 kOhms with status 'PASS'. Panel 2 labeled 'MP2 Mode (Case)': 16 red bars pegged at 32 kOhms with text 'FAULT: OPEN / RETURN DISCONNECTED'. Panel 3 labeled 'MP1+2 Mode': 16 green bars at 5.0 to 6.0 kOhms. Below is an alert box reading 'Warning: Internal Case Ground Plate Non-Conductive / Isolated'. Crisp medical software interface.]

Based on the telemetry findings in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the failure in the MP2 condition while surgery is still underway?

Options:
A.

The intracochlear array has sheared off at the round window.

B.

The titanium casing of the internal receiver-stimulator is encapsulated in an insulated rubber drape or an air pocket, preventing electrical contact with conductive subcutaneous tissue.

C.

All 16 platinum-iridium electrode contacts have melted simultaneously.

D.

The patient has suddenly developed an acute middle ear effusion.

Question # 12

A patient with mild hearing loss has excellent speech audibility but complains that faint ventilation noise is amplified continuously in a quiet office. Which modification would MOST selectively reduce this complaint without reducing conversational speech gain?

Options:
A.

Increase low-level expansion appropriately

B.

Reduce MPO

C.

Increase compression ratio only above 80 dB SPL

D.

Increase receiver power

Question # 13

A 30-month-old is developmentally typical and needs ear-specific thresholds after inconclusive VRA.

Which approach is most appropriate?

Options:
A.

Attempt conditioned play audiometry

B.

Use BOA only

C.

Delay testing until age 7

D.

Use newborn AABR screening only

Question # 14

A child with severe SNHL also has progressive renal disease and anterior lenticonus.

Which diagnosis is most likely?

Options:
A.

GJB2-related hearing loss

B.

Alport syndrome

C.

Pendred syndrome

D.

Usher syndrome type I

Question # 15

ESTION NO: 295 [Pediatric Audiology and Syndromes — Aminoglycoside Ototoxicity]

A premature infant receives a prolonged course of aminoglycoside antibiotics in the NICU. The infant passes the discharge hearing screen.

Which statement is most accurate?

Options:
A.

Ototoxic medication exposure remains a reason for subsequent hearing surveillance

B.

The passing screen proves aminoglycosides caused no auditory risk

C.

Aminoglycosides affect only middle-ear pressure

D.

Ototoxicity occurs only after age 18

Question # 16

A patient with recurrent episodic vertigo, fluctuating unilateral low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness has an SP/AP amplitude ratio within the laboratory's normal range.

What is the most appropriate conclusion?

Options:
A.

A normal ECochG result does not by itself exclude Ménière's disease

B.

Ménière's disease is definitively excluded

C.

The patient must have vestibular schwannoma

D.

A normal SP/AP ratio proves absence of endolymphatic hydrops

Question # 17

A 58-year-old male presents with acute dizziness and gait unsteadiness. Examination under infrared VNG goggles in the dark reveals spontaneous horizontal right-beating nystagmus with an SPV of 14 deg/sec in primary gaze. Gaze 20 degrees to the right increases the SPV to 24 deg/sec. Gaze 20 degrees to the left decreases the SPV to 4 deg/sec. When the fixation light inside the goggles is turned on, the nystagmus completely disappears (0 deg/sec). What physiological principles do these findings demonstrate?

Options:
A.

Central direction-changing nystagmus indicative of pontomedullary stroke

B.

Alexander's Law and intact visual fixation suppression in acute left peripheral vestibular hypofunction

C.

Bruns' nystagmus secondary to a cerebellopontine angle meningioma

D.

Cerebellar floccular disinhibition with failed fixation suppression

Question # 18

A 2-month-old infant has n ormal 1000-Hz tympanometry, present OAEs, and an identifiable cochlear microphonic. ABR neural components remain absent at high stimulus levels.

Which additional physiologic finding would further support auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder?

Options:
A.

Bilaterally absent acoustic reflexes

B.

Bilateral Type B tympanograms

C.

Markedly enlarged ear-canal volumes

D.

Type Ad tympanograms

Question # 19

A hearing aid provides 35 dB of gain at a 40 dB SPL compression kneepoint. Above the kneepoint, the compression ratio is 2:1. Assuming an idealized input-output function, approximately how much gain will be provided for a 60 dB SPL input?

Options:
A.

15 dB

B.

25 dB

C.

35 dB

D.

45 dB

Question # 20

An adult with suspected retrocochlear disease has clearly identifiable Wave I in both ears. The audiologist wants a measure that compares conduction from the distal auditory nerve to the later brainstem response while reducing the effect of initial peripheral activation time.

Which measure is most appropriate?

Options:
A.

Interaural comparison of the I–V interpeak interval

B.

Wave I absolute amplitude alone

C.

Tympanometric peak pressure

D.

Otoacoustic emission signal-to-noise ratio

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